Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 05:16

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are there posts saying the T in LGBT should be dropped? With what is happening in the US and beyond against the trans community cause for concern that if this is accepted could it be deemed acceptable to start on the LGB community again?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

MAGAs are becoming unhinged and violent about Musk being called the United States President. If MAGAs think Trump is the Commander in Chief, why aren’t MAGAs blaming Trump for what DOGE is doing to Americans?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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